Francesco Cavazzini

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia with 6q- shows distinct hematological features and intermediate prognosis

Cytogenetic and fluorescence in situ hybridization studies were successfully performed in 217 chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). In all, 13 patients with 6q21 deletion were identified and characterized in comparison with 92 patients with ‘favourable’ karyotype (normal or 13q−), 69 cases with ‘intermediate risk’ (1–2 anomalies) and 43 cases with ‘unfavourable’ karyotype (complex, 11q− or 17p−). Six out of 13 cases with 6q− showed an excess of atypical lymphocytes, a finding confirmed at the histologic level; >20% CD38+ cells were seen in 5/6 cases. IGVH mutational status revealed >98% homology to the germline sequence in 4/10 cases. When compared with the ‘favourable’ group, patients with 6q− showed a higher white blood cell (WBC) count, frequent splenomegaly, atypical morphology, CD38+ and short time from diagnosis to first treatment and short survival. A higher median WBC count was found in the 6q− group vs the intermediate-risk group; survival was shorter in the unfavourable group. To ascertain if the 6q− anomaly was an independent factor predicting for an inferior outcome among those patients with ‘favourable’ cytogenetics, we performed an analysis of prognostic factors in 105 patients (92 ‘favourable’ plus 13 with 6q−), showing that the 6q− chromosome maintained its prognostic significance at multivariate analysis (P=0.02) along with stage (P=0.01). We conclude that CLL with 6q− is characterized by a high incidence of atypical morphology, classical immunophenotype with CD38 positivity and intermediate incidence of IGVH somatic hypermutation. Clinicobiological features and outcome show that this cytogenetic subset of CLL should be allocated in an intermediate-risk category.

Clinical importance of interphase cytogenetics detecting occult chromosome lesions in myelodysplastic syndromes with normal karyotype

At diagnosis, approximately half of myelodysplastic (MDS) patients presents a normal karyotype by conventional cytogenetic analysis (CCA). Fluorescent in situhybridization (FISH) is more sensitive than CCA allowing for the detection of minor clones and of submicroscopic lesions. We have analyzed by FISH 101 MDS patients with normal karyotype for the occurrence of the abnormalities which are most frequently observed in MDS (ie −5/5q−, −7/7q−, +8, 17p−). In 18 patients, 15 to 32% of interphase cells were found to carry one FISH abnormality. Six patients presented trisomy 8, five had del(5)(q31), five del(7)(q31), one monosomy 7 and one del(17)(p13). FISH abnormalities were more frequently observed among patients with an increased percentage of bone marrow blasts (P = 0.001). FISH abnormalities were also associated with a higher rate of progression into AML (13/18 vs 12/83, P < 0.001) and were predictive for a worse prognosis (P < 0.001). Multivariate analysis indicated that FISH positivity and IPSS risk group were independent predictors for a poor survival (P = 0.0057 and 0.0123, respectively) and for leukemic transformation (P = 0.0006 and 0.035, respectively). Leukemic transformation in FISH-positive patients was associated in all cases with an expansion of the abnormal clone. Our data demonstrated that a significant proportion of MDS patients with normal karyotype presented, if analyzed by FISH, clones of cytogenetically abnormal cells which played a determinant role in the progression of the disease. The presence of FISH abnormalities identified a group of MDS patients with normal karyotype characterized by an inferior prognosis.

Chromosome 14q32 translocations involving the immunoglobulin heavy chain locus in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia identify a disease subset with poor prognosis

Immunophenotypic studies, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and conventional karyotyping were used to define the clinicobiological significance of 14q32 translocations involving the immunoglobulin gene locus (14q32/IGH) in 252 chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) patients. The following regions were studied: 13q14, centromere 12, 6q21; 11q22/ATM; 17p13/TP53, 14q32/IGH. Patients were classified as group 1 (favourable, i.e. 13q‐single or normal), group 2 (intermediate risk, i.e. +12, 6q‐, 1–2 anomalies), group 3 (unfavourable, i.e. 17p‐, 11q‐, complex karyotype), or group 4 (14q32/IGH translocation). Endpoints were treatment‐free survival (TFS) and overall survival (OS). One hundred and ten patients were included in group 1, 99 in group 2, 25 in group 3 and 18 in group 4. 14q32/IGH translocation partners were identified in eight cases (BCL2 in five cases, BCL11A, CCND3 and CDK6 in one case each). group 4 showed shorter TFS versus groups 2 and 1 (25% patients treated at 2 months vs. 12 (P = 0·02) and 20 months (P = 0·002), respectively) and shorter OS (25% patients dead at 18 months versus 50 (P = 0·0003) and >60 months (P < 0·0001) respectively. The 14q32/IGH translocation maintained prognostic significance at multivariate analysis on TFS (P = 0·025) and OS (P < 0·001), along with advanced stage and CD38+. These findings show that the 14q32/IGH translocation predicts for an unfavourable outcome in CLL and that this cytogenetic subset might be included as a separate entity in a hierarchical cytogenetic classification of CLL.

MicroRNAs involvement in fludarabine refractory chronic lymphocytic leukemia

BackgroundFludarabine, is one of the most active single agents in the treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Over time, however, virtually all CLL patients become fludarabine-refractory. To elucidate whether microRNAs are involved in the development of fludarabine resistance, we analyzed the expression of 723 human miRNAs before and 5-days after fludarabine mono-therapy in 17 CLL patients which were classified as responder or refractory to fludarabine treatment based on NCI criteria.ResultsBy comparing the expression profiles of these two groups of patients, we identified a microRNA signature able to distinguish refractory from sensitive CLLs. The expression of some microRNAs was also able to predict fludarabine resistance of 12 independent CLL patients. Among the identified microRNAs, miR-148a, miR-222 and miR-21 exhibited a significantly higher expression in non-responder patients either before and after fludarabine treatment. After performing messenger RNA expression profile of the same patients, the activation of p53-responsive genes was detected in fludarabine responsive cases only, therefore suggesting a possible mechanism linked to microRNA deregulation in non-responder patients. Importantly, inhibition of miR-21 and miR-222 by anti-miRNA oligonucleotides induced a significant increase in caspase activity in fludarabine-treated p53-mutant MEG-01 cells, suggesting that miR-21 and miR-222 up-regulation may be involved in the establishment of fludarabine resistance.ConclusionsThis is the first report that reveals the existence of a microRNA profile that differentiate refractory and sensitive CLLs, either before and after fludarabine mono-therapy. A p53 dysfunctional pathway emerged in refractory CLLs and could contribute in explaining the observed miRNA profile. Moreover, this work indicates that specific microRNAs can be used to predict fludarabine resistance and may potentially be used as therapeutic targets, therefore establishing an important starting point for future studies.

Charlson comorbidity index and adult comorbidity evaluation-27 scores might predict treatment compliance and development of pleural effusions in elderly patients with chronic myeloid leukemia treated with second-line dasatinib

Background Comorbidities may affect survival and choice of treatment among cancer patients. In fact, comorbidities have been identified as significant determinants of response to therapy in older patients with acute myeloid leukemia, breast cancer, head and neck cancer, and lung cancer. The Charlson comorbidity index and adult comorbidity evaluation-27 are lists of comorbidities with a weight assigned from 1 to 6 for the former and from 0 to 3 for the latter score, derived from relative risk estimates of a proportional hazard regression model using clinical data. Design and Methods We retrospectively evaluated the Charlson index and adult comorbidity evaluation-27 score in a cohort of 125 elderly (> 60 years) patients with chronic phase chronic myeloid leukemia who received dasatinib after showing resistance or intolerance to imatinib with the aim of establishing associations between comorbidities and the development of pleural effusions or compliance with the drug treatment. Results We found a significant association between the Charlson index as well as the adult comorbidity evaluation-27 score and the rate of drug reduction or suspension: with regards to the Charlson index, 49% of score 0 patients had a dose reduction compared to 63% of patients with score 1, 74% of those with score 2 and 100% of patients with score 3–5 (P=0.03); with regards to the adult comorbidity evaluation-27 score, 45% of patients had score 0–1 and 69% of patients with score 2–3 had a dose reduction. Of the 65 patients with Charlson score 0, 29% had at least one suspension of treatment (79% for hematologic and 21% for non-hematologic toxicity), compared to 46% of patients with score 1 (37% for hematologic and 69% for non-hematologic toxicity), 58% of patients with score 2 (36% for hematologic and 64% for non-hematologic toxicity) and 100% of patients with score 3 or 4 (all patients for both types of toxicity). High adult comorbidity index-27 scores identified patients at high risk of grade 3/4 hematologic toxicity. Forty-one patients (32.8%) experienced pleural effusion during treatment: the highest scores for both indices were associated with an increased risk of pleural effusions. Conclusions In elderly patients with chronic myeloid leukemia treated with dasatinib, the rate of drug reduction or suspension and the incidence of pleural effusions seem to be associated with the presence of comorbidities: stratification according to the Charlson index and adult comorbidity evaluation-27 score before dasatinib therapy may enable the identification of patients at risk of major toxicities.

Incidence, risk factors and management of pleural effusions during dasatinib treatment in unselected elderly patients with chronic myelogenous leukaemia

To assess the most important features and clinical impact of pleural effusions, which are a common toxicity during dasatinib treatment and often impair its high efficacy, 172 unselected consecutive patients with chronic myelogenous leukaemia in chronic phase treated in 27 Italian centres, with dasatinib when aged >60 years for resistance/intolerance to imatinib, were examined. During treatment, 52/172 patients (30.2%) presented pleural effusion, which was grades 1–2 in 38 patients and grades 3–4 in 14 patients (8.1% of the entire cohort of patients), according to the WHO scale; in 14/52 patients (26.9%), there was a concomitant pericardial effusion. Pleural effusion was recurrent in 25/52 patients (48.0%). Median time from dasatinib to first pleural effusion was 11.0 months (interquartile range 3.6–18.6). Eleven patients (6.4%) required permanent dasatinib discontinuation. Only presence of concomitant pulmonary disease ( p = 0.035) and initial daily dose of dasatinib (140 mg vs 100 mg, p = 0.014) were significantly associated with pleural effusions. There were no differences among patients with or without pleural effusions as concerns response rates and overall survival. Pleural effusions were common in our unselected ‘real‐life’ population of elderly patients but were clinically manageable and did not seem to affect treatment results. Copyright

Soluble urokinase-type plasminogen activator receptor (suPAR) as an independent factor predicting worse prognosis and extra-bone marrow involvement in multiple myeloma patients

Summary. The urokinase‐type plasminogen activator (uPA) system, which consists of a proteinase (uPA), a receptor (uPAR or CD87) and inhibitors, is involved in proteolysis, cell migration, tissue remodelling, angiogenesis and cell adhesion. Recent findings suggest that malignant plasma cells express uPA and uPAR. The expression of these factors could represent a process by which myeloma plasma cells interact with the bone marrow (BM) environment and influence important biological events such as bone matrix degradation, plasma cell invasion and homing and, possibly, clinical evolution. We evaluated uPAR (CD87) and its soluble form (suPAR) in 49 multiple myeloma (MM) patients and correlated their expression and levels with clinico‐biological characteristics of the disease. Flow cytometric analysis demonstrated that CD87 was expressed in all MM patients. High CD87 expression was associated with higher intensity of expression of CD56 (P = 0·038), CD38 (P = 0·058) and CD138 (P = 0·054) and CD45bright positivity (P = 0·014). suPAR levels correlated positively with soluble serum CD138 (P = 0·001), creatinine (P = 0·001), beta2‐microglobulin (P < 0·001), disease stage (P = 0·017) and extra‐BM involvement (P = 0·002). In the 46 evaluable patients, multivariate analysis showed that high levels of suPAR (P = 0·0214) and disease stage (P = 0·0064) were predictive of extra‐BM involvement. In multivariate Cox analysis, 13q deletion (P = 0·0278), high soluble serum CD138 (P = 0·0201) and high suPAR (P = 0·0229) were the only parameters that independently affected survival. We conclude that CD87 is expressed on myeloma plasma cells and that suPAR, which predicts extra‐BM involvement and poor prognosis, possibly represents a molecule with a relevant role in the biology of MM.

Long-term outcome of chronic myeloid leukemia patients treated frontline with imatinib

For almost 10 years imatinib has been the therapeutic standard of chronic myeloid leukemia. The introduction of other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) raised a debate on treatment optimization. The debate is still heated: some studies have protocol restrictions or limited follow-up; in other studies, some relevant data are missing. The aim of this report is to provide a comprehensive, long-term, intention-to-treat, analysis of 559 newly diagnosed, chronic-phase, patients treated frontline with imatinib. With a minimum follow-up of 66 months, 65% of patients were still on imatinib, 19% were on alternative treatment, 12% died and 4% were lost to follow-up. The prognostic value of BCR-ABL1 ratio at 3 months (⩽10% in 81% of patients) was confirmed. The prognostic value of complete cytogenetic response and major molecular response at 1 year was confirmed. The 6-year overall survival was 89%, but as 50% of deaths occurred in remission, the 6-year cumulative incidence of leukemia-related death was 5%. The long-term outcome of first-line imatinib was excellent, also because of second-line treatment with other TKIs, but all responses and outcomes were inferior in high-risk patients, suggesting that to optimize treatment results, a specific risk-adapted treatment is needed for such patients.

Incidence and significance of cryptic chromosome aberrations detected by fluorescence in situ hybridization in acute myeloid leukemia with normal karyotype

To better define the incidence and significance of cryptic chromosome lesions in acute myeloid leukemia (AML), fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) studies were performed in interphase cells and, when appropriate, in metaphase cells and in morphologically intact BM smears. Fifty-five adult de novo AML (group A) and 27 elderly AML or AML after myelodysplastic syndrome (AML-MDS) (group B) were tested using probes detecting the following anomalies: −5, −7, +8, deletions of 5q31, 7q31, 12p13/ETV6, 17p13/p53, 20q11. All the patients had a normal karyotype in more than 20 cells and tested negative for the common AML-associated fusion genes. No patient in group A was found to carry occult chromosome anomalies, whereas 8/27 patients in group B (P < 0.0001) showed 5q31 or 7q31 deletion (three cases each), a 17p13/p53deletion or trisomy 8 (one case each) in 33–60% interphase cells. Metaphase cells showed only one hybridization signal at 5q31 (three cases) and 7q31 (one case), whereas two normal signals at 7q31 and chromosome 8 centromeres were seen in two patients with 7q deletion and trisomy 8 in interphase cells. The majority of blast cells (76–94%) carried the chromosome anomaly in all cases; erythroid involvement in a minority of cells was seen in three patients. In group B, the presence of occult chromosome anomalies was associated with exposure to myelotoxic agents in the workplace (5/8 cases vs 3/19, P = 0.026) and with a lower complete remission rate (0/6 patients vs 7/12, P = 0.024). We arrived at the following conclusions: (1) cryptic chromosome deletions in the order of a few hundred kb magnitude may be found in a fraction of elderly AML or MDS-related AML and not in de novo adult AML with normal karyotype; (2) these chromosome lesions are usually represented by submicroscopic rearrangements; (3) they display a specific pattern of cell-lineage involvement arguing in favor of their role in the outgrowth of the leukemic blast cells; (4) they are associated with a history of exposure to myelotoxic agents in the workplace and, possibly, with resistance to induction treatment.

Characterization of a recurrent translocation t(2;3)(p15-22;q26) occurring in acute myeloid leukaemia.

Six patients with de novo acute myeloid leukemia (AML) and a t(2;3)(p15–21;q26–27) were identified among approximately 1000 cases enrolled in the GIMEMA trial. The t(2;3) was the sole anomaly in three patients, whereas in three cases monosomy 7, trisomy 15 and 22, and trisomy 14 represented additional aberrations. No cryptic chromosome deletions at 5q, 7q, 12p, and 20q were observed. One patient carried a FLT3 D835 mutation; FLT3 internal tandem duplication (ITD) was not detected in three patients tested. Characterization of the translocation breakpoints using a 3q26 BAC contig specific for the PRDM3 locus showed that the breakpoints were located 5′ to EVI1 as follows: within myelodysplatic syndrome (MDS) intron 1 (# 3), between MDS1 exons 2 and 3 in three patients (# 1, 2, 4) with a 170 bp cryptic deletion distal to the breakpoint in one (# 2), and in a more centromeric position spanning from intron 2 to the 5′ region of EVI1 (# 6, 5). A set of 2p16–21 BAC probes showed that the breakpoints on chromosome 2p were located within BCL11A in two separate regions (# 1, 4 and # 2–5), within the thyroid adenoma-associated (THADA) gene (# 6) or distal to the ZFP36L2 locus (# 3). Regulatory elements were present in proximity of these breakpoints. RACE PCR studies revealed a chimeric transcript in 1/6 patient analyzed, but no fusion protein. Quantitative PCR showed a 21–58-fold overexpression of the EVI1 gene in all cases analyzed. The patients showed dysplasia of at least two myeloid cell lineages in all cases; they had a low-to-normal platelet count and displayed an immature CD34+ CD117+ immunophenotype. Despite intensive chemotherapy and a median age of 43 years (range 36–59), only two patients attained a short-lived response; one patient is alive with active disease at 12 months, five died at 4–14 months. We arrived at the following conclusions: (a) the t(2;3) is a recurrent translocation having an approximate 0.5% incidence in adult AML; (b) breakpoints involve the 5′ region of EVI1 at 3q26, and the BCL11A, the THADA gene or other regions at 2p16.1–21; (c) cryptic deletions distal to the 3q26 breakpoint may occur in some cases; (d) the juxtaposition of the 5′ region of EVI1 with regulatory elements normally located on chromosome 2 brings about EVI1 overexpression; (e) clinical outcome in these cases is severe.